Pp, I have a question.
DHEA converts to androstenedione. Everything i've read about androstenedione says that it is highly estrogenic and increases risk of gynecomastia. So, how is the new "1-t" going to have low conversion to estrogen? androstenediol seems to be a much greater PH than androstenedione because it converts to test 3 times higher and has almost no estrogenic effect. Is this an accurate assessment? If it is, wouldn't it be better to feature significantly more androstenediol in "1-t" and less androstenedione? Excuse my ignorance on the subject, I am just trying to pick at your brain and get as much info as possible.
Also, does "1-t" increase the risks of hair loss significantly, slightly, or insignificantly?