Bigfella
Your explanation is fine, such as it is, it just doesn't answer my question. Either I'm not seeing your point, or your not seeing mine; who knows?
OK: I know testosterone forms DHT (duh!), which is bad on the hair. What I meant was that testosterone, the precursor, IN AND OF ITSELF is not a big factor in MPB. So if, as your Peter Van Mol quote says, nandrolones's structure renders it a significantly WEAKER androgen than testosterone, then how is it going to effect hair loss one way or the other, regardless of whether nandrolone is converted to an even WEAKER androgen, such as DHN, or whether it stays as nandrolone (in the presence of 5 AR inhibition with finasteride or dutasteride)? Can you show me how nandrolone, although a weaker androgen than test, still is so bad-ass on the hairline? THIS is the question I've been (unsucessfully so far) trying to get an answer to.
I understand about precursor molecules and their enzymatic transformation. BTW, Bill Robert's explanation doesn't cut it either. In fact, (http://www.mesomorphosis.com/faq/na...kely-to-cause-hair-loss-than-testosterone.htm)
HE says that nandrolone itself is a 5AR inhibitor, and that the presence of nandrolone (NOT DHN) means there will be less DHT in the scalp. Therefore less effect on the hair.
Does this make the nature of my question clearer? Or, have I perhaps answered it my self? If so, finasteride with Deca should be fine.
Your explanation is fine, such as it is, it just doesn't answer my question. Either I'm not seeing your point, or your not seeing mine; who knows?
OK: I know testosterone forms DHT (duh!), which is bad on the hair. What I meant was that testosterone, the precursor, IN AND OF ITSELF is not a big factor in MPB. So if, as your Peter Van Mol quote says, nandrolones's structure renders it a significantly WEAKER androgen than testosterone, then how is it going to effect hair loss one way or the other, regardless of whether nandrolone is converted to an even WEAKER androgen, such as DHN, or whether it stays as nandrolone (in the presence of 5 AR inhibition with finasteride or dutasteride)? Can you show me how nandrolone, although a weaker androgen than test, still is so bad-ass on the hairline? THIS is the question I've been (unsucessfully so far) trying to get an answer to.
I understand about precursor molecules and their enzymatic transformation. BTW, Bill Robert's explanation doesn't cut it either. In fact, (http://www.mesomorphosis.com/faq/na...kely-to-cause-hair-loss-than-testosterone.htm)
HE says that nandrolone itself is a 5AR inhibitor, and that the presence of nandrolone (NOT DHN) means there will be less DHT in the scalp. Therefore less effect on the hair.
Does this make the nature of my question clearer? Or, have I perhaps answered it my self? If so, finasteride with Deca should be fine.