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4-AD Clairification

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distantstorms

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Can someone check this out and tell me if I'm reading/understanding this wrong. Sorry it is 2am.

http://www.dermabolics.com

Under the 4Derm info. read the description. I'm concerned with the quote..."This topical matrix contains the androgen 4-Androstenediol, a substance that converts directly into Testosterone and is 95% as anabolic as its target hormone."

Ok the target hormone is testosterone, I get that part, now, are they saying that 4-Androstenediol itself (unconverted) is 95% as anabolic as test??? Or am I right out of it? If this is the case why would companies hammer on about the fact that 4-AD has a something like 16% conversion rate to test when they have a substance that (they say in this case) is 95% as anabolic as test, people would just buy if for that fact and the 16% converstion to test would just be a bonus?

I'm probably just not understanding pro-hormones enough yet.

Thanks in advance for any explanations on this...
 
I dont know the specific percentages, but I do know that only a SMALL amount of the 4-AD will convert to test or anything anabolic enough to make a difference. Your *real* supplements for that are 1-Test, 1-AD and 1-Mythyl Test.

Good luck in your search.

Pete
 
In rat levator ani assays 4-ad was found to be 95% as anabolic as testosterone. Obviously, any amount converted would be 100% as anabolic as testosterone. The quick answer to your question would be that 100mg of 4-ad would be roughly 95% as anabolic as 100mg of testosterone, without conversion being directly accounted for. Take the Vida data with a grain of salt as the experiments were not performed on skeletal muscle tissue so no direct bodybuilding type comparison can be made. Hope this post wasn't too difficult to follow.
 
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