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Author Topic:   Maths Question....PROBABILITY DISTRIBUTIONS
barney

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From:down under
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posted December 06, 2000 09:05 AM

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can someone help me finish my assignments , this question is pretty basic if you know the formula, i just cant find my notes from earlier on in the year,

1/ What is the probability of a 5 child family being 3 boys and two girls?

is it like a xCx question, i cat quite remember the formula, using the n! button??
help meeeeeee!!!!!


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Warik

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posted December 06, 2000 11:47 AM

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This link might help you out.

http://library.thinkquest.org/10030/4pcpac.htm

Good luck.

-Warik


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Phoenix|138

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posted December 06, 2000 04:17 PM

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It's been a while since I've done discrete, so I don't have any formulas handy in memory, but I'm *pretty* sure you can look at the problem this way:

What are all the different possible combinations of boy/girl familes of 5 children?

Boys Girls
5 0
4 1
3 2
2 3
1 4
0 5

So take the combination of 3 boys and 2 girls out of the total and you have a 1/6 probability. I'm not 100% certain that that is the correct way to tackle that problem, but I think it is. Do me a favor and let me know when you find the answer.


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May1010

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posted December 06, 2000 04:39 PM

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Phoenix,

Beautifully done.

May1010


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Steriod_Virgin

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posted December 06, 2000 06:18 PM

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It depends...

2 ways to answer:

Order doesn't matter: 1 in 6

mmmmm
mmmmf
mmmff
mmfff
mffff
ffffff

order does matter: 10 out of 32 or 31.25%

mmmmm

mmmmf
mmmfm
mmfmm
mfmmm
fmmmm

mmmff
mmffm
mffmm
ffmmm
fmfmm
fmmfm
fmmmf
mffmm
mfmfm
mfmmf

fffmm
ffmmf
fmmff
mmfff
mfmff
mffmf
mfffm
fmmff
fmfmf
fmffm

ffffm
fffmf
ffmff
fmfff
mffff

fffff

SV


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Steriod_Virgin

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posted December 06, 2000 06:24 PM

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Now I think of it, I believe it's the latter.. 31.25% looks right.. You cant just look at the combinations, you have to look at the permutations not just the combinations.


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MP5

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posted December 06, 2000 06:27 PM

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it is 1 in 6.


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Steriod_Virgin

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posted December 06, 2000 06:41 PM

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Sorry MP5, no it isnt....


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ILLmatic

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posted December 06, 2000 08:11 PM

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I see a flaw here, for it to be 1 in 6, it would have to be equally probable that it could be any combination of m/f as all one gender.. given that each time it's 50/50 chance that logic doesn't seem right to me.
I am no mathematician, that just seems right to me.
peace,
ILLmatic


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chesty

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posted December 06, 2000 08:31 PM

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The equation you reference cannot be that simple.

The probability of a boy vs a girl in birth is not readily predictable.

Since it is the father that determines the sex, it will be dependent upon the father's ratio of x-chromosome sperm to y-chromosome sperm, in addition it is also dependent upon the strength of the sperm, given that y-chromosome sperm are stronger than the x-chromosome sperm.

Then there is the resistance of the femal egg to either x or y chromsome sperm.

So, to predict what the liklihood of 3 boys and two girls is not easily predictable even among relatives.

For example, my first wife we had three girls, with her second husband (freak) she had two more girls. She always wanted a boy and failed.

Now my second wife completely different genetics she had two boys. So, with the same father there are three girls and two boys (but different mothers)

My uncle had 4 girls and 1 boy, my other uncle had 1 boy and 1 girl, and I have 1 brother and 1 sister.

The closest statistical number could only really be derived by a comparison of the actual number of families with the required combination of children vs the rest of the population with five children, but the wrong combination.

And even this will not give you a tremendously reliable number.
Make sense?


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Phoenix|138

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posted December 06, 2000 09:48 PM

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I see your point Chesty. I think the question that needs to be asked is if this assignment is for a genetics course or for a mathematics course. If it's a genetics course then we're going to need additional information about the mother and father in order to determine the probability. If the question is from a math course, then I imagine it's pretty safe to say that we can assume a 50% probability of the child being a boy each time.


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chesty

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posted December 07, 2000 12:17 AM

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True and the answer is purely a simple statistical one


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runner

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posted December 07, 2000 08:07 AM

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it's been a while since i took probability, and i can't type some of the symbols, but here goes.

i believe it's a binomial distribution and the odds are (assuming 50/50 chance for boy/girl):

0 boys: 1/32
1 boy : 5/32
2 boys: 10/32
3 boys: 10/32
4 boys: 5/32
5 boys: 1/32

essentially the odds on n boys are "5 choose n" times p to the n power times (1-p) to the 5-n power. in this case p and 1-p are both .5


5 choose n is equal to 5!/(n!*(5-n)!)

so here we have 5!/3!2! * (.5)^5 or 10/32


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Steriod_Virgin

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posted December 07, 2000 09:33 AM

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Runner.. If you read up that's exactly what I had said.. I even took the time to write out all the possibilities.. it's 10/32 or 31.25%

end of discussion


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barney

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posted December 07, 2000 09:37 AM

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thanks to all that tackled the question, chesty it is a purely statistical one, thanks runner i think your on the right track, i remember when we first tackled this all those months ago it was using the factorials on the calculator.


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barney

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posted December 07, 2000 09:47 AM

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thanks to you steroid virgin, im just having trouble with the calculation

so the answer is: out of the 5 children what are the Chances (c) of 3 boys
5C3 = 5!/3!*2! = 120/6*2 =10 what am i doing wrong???


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madbomber31

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posted December 07, 2000 11:29 AM

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ACTUALLY, THATS A TERRIBLE QUESTION FOR A STATS CLASS... YOU "HAVE" TO GO WITH CHESTY ON THIS... EACH PERSON DOES NOT HAVE A 50-50 SHOT AT POPPING OUT A MALE OR FEMALE... GENETICS WILL PREDETERMIN THE PROBABILITY OF THE CHILDS SEX... I THINKN YOU SHOULD JUST GET FUNKY ON YOUR MATH TEACHER AND PISS HIM OFF... BUT HAVE THE PURE STATISTICAL ANSWER HANDY AS WELL, BUT DEFINITELY SAY THAT THE QUESTION IS TWO SIDED WITH MANY MANY POSSIBLE ANSWERS... SO YOU GET IT RIGHT AND YOU PISS HIM OFF... WHATS BETTER THEN THAT?


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Phoenix|138

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posted December 07, 2000 03:50 PM

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i need to change my answer as runner is correct; it is a binomimial distribution. the complete equation is:

(N!/(x! * (N-x)!)) * (p^x) * ((1-p)^(N-x))

where N is the total number of tries (5), x is the number of successes (in this case boys, so 3), and p is the probability of success (.5).

barney, if you check, runner plugs in the number and solves the equation at the end of his post.


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kat

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posted December 07, 2000 04:04 PM

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I feel so stupid now.


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Phoenix|138

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posted December 07, 2000 04:18 PM

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quote:
Originally posted by kat:
I feel so stupid now.

kat, a while back you responded to a philosophy thread and posted about nietzsche, so i imagine it's safe to say that you're educated. if you didn't major in math or an engineering field, then chances are you just haven't been exposed to much probability.


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Steriod_Virgin

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posted December 07, 2000 04:23 PM

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You are doing nothing wrong, you just are not finishing... the problem is two part! First you determine the number of successful outcomes (permutations) 5Chance3, which you had 10, thats right.. ((5!)/3!*2!)= 60/6 = 10

Then the second part is determining the number of all possible outcomes.. Which is simply 2^5 (2 to the 5th power) = 32. the divide the successful outcomes (10) by the total possible (32), you get 10/32, or 31.25%

Thanks


you have


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kat

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posted December 07, 2000 04:26 PM

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I always thought probability was like Fate...guess they came up with an equation for it...and you're right!!! I got a C in first year college business math and busted my nuts for that...I am a complete loser at math.
Which I understood trig though...could have gotten first place in my billiards tourney instead of third...


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Steriod_Virgin

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posted December 07, 2000 04:31 PM

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If you were a complete loser, you would have failed business math.. dont be so tough on yourself..

Everyone has their own skills and talents kat.


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Steriod_Virgin

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posted December 09, 2000 06:04 PM

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bump for the guy who posted the question in the first place..


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