1. Testosterone is said to be 50% androgenic and 50% anabolic. Explain the 50% anabolic:

Ok, here's the answer I was looking for. Some people got partial credit for #1.
50% androgenic due to the fact that test, like most steroids binds to the androgen receptor. This is where half of it's anabolic properties are realized.
There are two primary anabolic pathways. One is that when androgens bind to their receptors, the receptor sends mRNA to transcript contractile proteins from the myosin gene. This gene regulates the amount of muscle fibers that are constructed as a result of damages of resistance training.
The other metabolic pathway follows IGF-1 receptor. Growth hormone utalizes this pathway to affect protein synthesis in the same way that androgens do. They send messages from the myosin gene to begin transcription of additional contractile proteins. However, this process is not as simple as the androgenic process and would take a long time to explain. I will post a thread about how GH works at a later time. It is termed 50% anabolic because, unlike other androgens, it causes the IGF-1 receptors to increase in number. Testosterone actually acts directly on other pathways causing them to increase receptor capicity even though no testosterone binds to any receptor but the androgen. This seems to account for the 50/50 split.

The rest is True or False

2. The initial quantity of receptors is not one of the main factors in determining the anabolic effect of exogenous test injections because the number of receptors will increase in proportion to the dosage of the injection.

False Testosterone (as well as other androgens) does actually cause an increase in the number of receptors; however, the increase is not in proportion to the dosage. Additional test. (test. concentration greater than the body's norm) will encourage the formation of additional receptors, but if you start out w/ 10 receptors/nm you will develop additional receptors only on a percentage basis. So a 10% increase would leave 11/nm. Whereas a person who naturally has 20/nm may increase his receptors to 22/nm. This is one way that genetics plays a role in how well you respond to exogenous androgens. If you don't respond well to exercise to begin with, you won't respond as well to test. as someone who grew a lot naturally would. You simply lack the genetic code for having many receptors. And although your receptor concentration may increase, you'll never see the same results from 1 gram of test as one with a naturally high number of receptors.
I hope I was plain enough on this...

3. Exogenous injections of testosterone cause an increase in the number of androgen receptors.

True (explained in #2).

4. Exogenous injections of IGF-1 cause an increase in the number of androgen receptors.

Growth hormone (which was what I meant to write) or IGF-1 does not cause any increase in androgen receptors.

5. IGF-1 binds to the androgen receptor.

False It has its own receptor.

6. Test., D-bol, Winstrol, and EQ all compete for the same receptors.

True. There are not different receptors for different anabolic hormones. They all compete for the exact same androgen receptor. They just utalize different enzymatic pathways to get there.

7. Anadrol is stronger mg/mg (as the causal agent in protein synthesis) than Winstrol.

False. Winstrol is actually reported to be stroger dose per dose than anadrol. Winstrol is just much more toxic to the liver so is only availible in low dossage.

8. Anabolic benefits are acheived from exogenous testosterone injections when an androgen binds to its appropriate receptor and the two form a muscle cell.

False. Benefits are realized when the cell increases in size due to the transcription of additional contractile proteins from the myosin gene.

9. In men not on AS, testosterone levels increase mimiking the increases in strength and size changes; thus, one who did bench 200 but now benches 400 has also doubled in his production of testosterone.

True, as I understand it in the research paper that I read but false as it occurs to common since. It just depends on how you interpret the following statement. I gave everyone credit; I just figured I'd throw that one in there. It said that the increase in test levels mimicks the increase in strength.

10. Women see no increases in test. levels when they train.

True. Women do increase their concentration of IGF-1 receptors which signal the production of additional contractile proteins. This is the main difference in results of resistance training among men and women.

11. Part of the testosterone from exogenous injections will be bound by carrier proteins and remain unactive even after becoming desterfied.

True. Carrier proteins act as your body's own esters. Not under AS influence, they are used to insure that there is a reserve of androgens so that there can be a steady release and binding to receptor sites.

12. DHT can convert to testosterone.

False.

13. Nor-androstendione converts to testosterone.

False. Androstenedione converts to testosterone. Nor-androstendione converts to nandralone A.K.A. deca.

14. Clomid is an antiaromitase.

False. Deca is a weak estrogen that binds to estrogen receptors.

15. Armidex binds to estrogen receptors.

False. Armidex is an anti-aromatase.

16. HCG does not stimulate the pituatary gland to release LH, rather it stimulates the testicles directly and delays the pituatary's release of LH (LH is the body's chemical messger to the testicles telling them to up production of test.).

True. This actually causes a delay in the pituatary's release of LH through a feedback loop. LH acts in the same was as HCG; it tells the testicles to produce.

17. Muscle size is acheived by mitosis (cell division) causing an increase in the number of muscle cells.

False. Cell division in muscle cells ceases after birth. Your muscle cells will never divide again. Size is acheived through either stem cell development into muscle cells or from cellular expansion due to increased development of contractile proteins.

18. Deca can convert to estrogen.

False.

19. Deca can cause gyno.

True due to conversion to progesterone.

20. Purchasing up to a 90 day supply of non-steroidal meds such as Viagra, Clomid, Armidex, and HCG from overseas pharmacies with out a prescription is legal (in the US).

False, it's just as illegeal as me selling valiums on the street. If you don't have a prescription, you can't buy a 90 day's supply legally. However, this is impossible to inforce and the gov. clearly couldn't track every incomming package of uncontrolled substances to see if their recepiant has a prescription for them or not. 75% of that would be wild goose chases. However, customs has started to seize some packages and demand that they see a prescription before they will release the package. I don't have first hand experience in this, it's just trickled down the grapevine.

-Stew

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Mass Monster