First of all, the passage is completely silent on man-on-woman sex, lustful or not. Using your logic, even lustful interactions of men toward women must be acceptable.
Except elsewhere in the Bible does it say lustful sex between men and women is wrong, but elsewhere in the Bible it does not say relationships between two men or two women is wrong.
Furthermore, if the goal of the passage was to only show that idolatry leads to sinful lust, then bringing-up the issue of men having sex with men would be a complete waste of text and time in the first place.
Because the writers of the Bible were always succint and to the point, right?
The Christan religion evolved (but I agree is not bound) from Jewish law. And Jewish law was unmistakable -- if you committed homosexuality, you were to be bludgeoned to death with rocks.
If Christians still followed Jewish law, Christians would be kosher, and would think having sex with a woman while on her period was as wrong as homosexuality. Jesus lightened-up on the stoning issue with "let he who is without sin cast the first stone" story, but Christianity was still definitely anti-homosexual. This passage is clearly showing how idolatry can lead to even more distasteful behaviors, including homosexuality.
Yes, it is showing how idolatry can lead to distasteful behaviors, like lust-motivated sex. You'll notice it doesn't say that the distasteful behaviors were men loving other men or women loving other women. It said the behavior was those people having sex while full of lust, like I said.
With the liberties you've taken, I could easily argue that the bible is supportive of divorce, murder, abortion or any other cause I'd like to justify.
No you couldn't easily argue all those things. I'm not cracking on your flavor of Christianity, but you're opening the door wide-open for it to basically be whatever the specific believer wants.
If not inferring further meaning in to words than what is there, then sure, I'm opening the door.
rolleyes