Posted by Asia the Invincible on March 17, 1997 at 22:56:56:
Here is my theory. I hope it is NOT true.
Supposing if a guy takes, say, 1000 mg of test. He gains X amount of muscle.
Now, suppose if the same guy took 1000 mgs of test, and say, several handfuls of a less useful drug like winstrol tablets or Maxibolins. Will he gain more than X amount of muscle? Or less? I pose this question, becuase if the less powerful (marginally anabolic) drug, saturates the receptors, and the test has nowhere to go, will the benefit be less?
Just a thought.
Asia.